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  • Question

  • Why is that the value of shares purchased, in a currency different from the currency of the country from which I operate, as recorde on purchase date is reflected as a different value as the rate of exchange changes? Surely the value on the day of purchase should be a constant.

    Hiddingh

    Monday, January 17, 2011 6:23 PM

All replies

  • Because Money does some really dumb things in how they handle currency conversion in transactions?
    Tuesday, January 18, 2011 3:10 AM
    Moderator